Make q the subject of the formula in the equation \(\frac{mn}{a^2} – \frac{pq}{b^2} = 1\)
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\(q = \frac{b^2(mn - a^2)}{a^2 p}\)
- \(q = \frac{m^2 n - a^2}{p^2}\)
- \(q = \frac{mn - 2b^2}{a^2}\)
- \(q = \frac{b^2 (n^2 - ma^2)}{n}\)
The correct answer is: A
Explanation
\(\frac{mn}{a^2} - \frac{pq}{b^2} = 1\)
\(\frac{mn}{a^2} - 1 = \frac{pq}{b^2}\)
\(\frac{mn - a^2}{a^2} = \frac{pq}{b^2}\)
\(pq = \frac{b^2 (mn - a^2)}{a^2}\)
\(q = \frac{b^2(mn - a^2)}{a^2 p}\)
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